@wiki 21059 2007-05-29T15:45:12Z @wiki::43/ 2007-05-29 2007-05-29T15:45:12Z

English FormE-2b CCNA3 Version3.1 Final - 2006 Fall 1. Refer to the exhibit. The network has converged and Switch_6 has been elected root bridge of the STP tree. However, network traffic analysis indicates that Switch_1 would be a better root bridge. How can the network administrator make this change, assuming that the spanning-tree priorities are at the default settings? Set the bridge priority of Switch_1 to 32,768. Set the bridge priority of Switch_6 to 65,565. ***Set the bridge priority of Switch_1 to 1. Set the bridge priority of Switch_6 to 255. 2. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off? when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes when a router has more than three active interfaces ***when a router has discontiguous networks attached when a router has less than five active interfaces 3. Refer to the output in the exhibit. What can be determined from the information shown? VTP has been enabled for all ports. Hosts in VLAN11 and VLAN22 must have IP addresses in the same subnet in order for them to exchange data. Three ports have been assigned to the management VLAN. ***ARP requests issued by the host on port Fa0/12 will be seen by all hosts on VLAN33. 4. Refer to the OSPF network in the exhibit. Router R2 has been elected DR, but router R1 is the more powerful router. How can the network administrator configure R1 to force it to be elected as DR? R1(config)# ospf priority 1 R1(config)# ip ospf priority 255 R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 R1(config-if)# ospf priority 0 R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 R1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0 ***R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 R1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255 5. Which of the following are attributes of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.) Periodic updates are sent every 120 seconds to neighboring routers. Each router sends its entire routing table to neighboring routers. ***Routers send updates when a change in the network is detected. ***Link-state protocols converge more rapidly than distance vector protocols. After convergence, link-state protocols use more bandwidth than distance vector protocols use. ***Link-state protocols are less prone to routing loops than distance vector protocols. 6. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of DR elections in the OSPF network shown? (Choose three.) ***CTL will be DR of the 172.16.4.0/24 network. ID3 will be DR of the 172.16.4.0/24 network. ***CTL will be DR of the 172.16.5.0/24 network. ID1 will be DR of the 172.16.5.0/24 network. ***CTL will be DR of the 172.16.8.0/24 network. ID2 will be DR of the 172.16.8.0/24 network. 7. The network administrator shown in the exhibit is connected to an Ethernet LAN port on ACC-1. The administrator needs to verify the configuration of the newly installed switch ACC-3. What must be done so that the administrator can access ACC-3 with a web browser? (Choose three.) ***Establish the Layer 3 connectivity of the host to ACC-3. Set the password on the management VLAN. Configure the hostname on ACC-3. ***Activate the HTTP service on ACC-3. ***Configure IP addressing parameters on ACC-3. 8. Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.) ***RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new network. RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface. The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised. ***A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface. ***The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands. RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added network. 9. Multiple routers have been configured with EIGRP as the routing protocol for use in the corporate network. What is true of the operation of this network? (Choose three.) Only link-state protocols will run in the network. ***Routing information in the form of partial updates will be sent in response to topology changes. ***The network can support multiple routed protocols. ***Hello packets are used to discover and verify the status of neighboring routers. Routing updates are broadcast to all other routers in the network. Routing updates that consist of entire routing tables are sent to neighboring routers. 10. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch? interface vlan 2 ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0 no shutdown interface vlan 3 ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0 no shutdown ***interface fastethernet 0/0 no shutdown interface fastethernet 0/0.2 encapsulation dot1q 2 ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0 interface fastethernet 0/0.3 encapsulation dot1q 3 ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0 interface vlan 2 switchport mode trunk dot1q interface vlan 3 switchport mode trunk dot11 interface fastethernet 0/0 mode trunk dot1q 2 3 ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0 11. Refer to the exhibit. Two Catalyst switches are connected, and both switches have ports configured for the Sales and Marketing VLANs as shown. What will allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate with one another across different switches? STP VTP routing ***trunking 12. Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch SW-A with a default gateway. Assuming the switch IP address is 192.168.120.12/24, what command string will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch? SW-A(config)# ip gateway 192.168.120.1 SW-A(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.120.255 SW-A(config)# ip route 192.168.120.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0 SW-A(config)# ip default-route 192.168.120.254 ***SW-A(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.120.254 13. What is the first step in the spanning-tree process? elect a designated switch use a router to locate a default gateway ***elect a root bridge determine the path cost of each active port on the switch 14. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as the root bridge in a spanning-tree network? highest path cost highest priority number highest Layer 2 address ***lowest priority number lowest path cost lowest Layer 2 address 15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value of 64 shown in the routing table? It is the administrative distance. It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates how many hops are in the network. It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link. ***It is the metric, which is cost. 16. A new switch has been added to the network and it needs to support error-free switching. Which switching mode should be configured on the new switch? cut-through fragment-free ***store and forward auto-sensing 17. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1? 198.18.0.0/16 ***198.18.48.0/21 198.18.32.0/22 198.18.48.0/23 198.18.49.0/23 198.18.52.0/22 18. A network administrator asked an assistant to remove several VLANs from a switch. When the assistant entered in the no vlan 1 command an error was received. What was the cause of the error? VLANs can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from the VLAN assignment. VLANs can only be deleted by the user that created them. VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its duties. ***VLAN1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted. The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur. 19. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are there in the topology shown, assuming that VLANs are not configured on the switches? one ***two three four six eight 20. What are two of the benefits that switches provide to a network without VLANs configured? (Choose two.) They allow creation of permanent virtual circuits. They decrease network throughput. They shrink the size of broadcast domains. ***They help eliminate collision domains. ***They allow existing bandwidth to be more efficiently utilized. 21. Refer to the network and command output shown in the exhibit. A network administrator located at the Headquarters site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the Pacific office. Which command can be used to gain remote access to the Pacific LAN switch, assuming the switch is assigned the IP address 198.19.27.251/24? Headquarters# telnet Pacific Headquarters# dial Pacific 198.19.27.251 Headquarters(config)# line vty 0 4 Headquarters(config-line)# telnet Pacific ***Headquarters# telnet 198.19.27.251 22. Which three statements describe full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.) ***It utilizes 100% of the bandwidth in both directions. It requires two wires. It increases the number of broadcast domains in the network. ***It allows data to be received and sent simultaneously. ***It reduces the number of collisions. It provides between 60% and 80% of the bandwidth in both directions. 23. The following command was added to a router configuration: ip route 172.26.153.0 255.255.255.0 198.19.27.249 What two effects will this command have? (Choose two.) It will create a default route using the interface with the IP address 198.19.27.249 as the next hop. The route will be marked with an "C" in the routing table. ***It will create a static route to the 172.26.153.0/24 network. All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded to the 172.26.153.0/24 network. ***Routes to network 172.26.153.0 that are learned dynamically will not be used to route packets as long as this configuration command is in effect. 24. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge, if the switches are configured with their default priority values? Switch_1 Switch_2 Switch_3 Switch_4 ***Switch_5 Switch_6 25. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration commands will direct outbound traffic from Corp_1 to the ISP and inbound traffic from the ISP to network 192.168.1.0/24? ***Corp_1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0 ISP(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1 Corp_1(config)# ip route 198.19.27.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/0 ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1 Corp_1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0 ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0 Corp_1(config)# ip route 198.19.27.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/0 ISP(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1 26. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct OSPF configuration for router RT-1? RT-1(config)# router ospf 1 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.0 0.0.0.63 area 0 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.248 0.0.0.3 area 0 RT-1(config)# router ospf 0 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.248 0.0.0.31 area 0 ***RT-1(config)# router ospf 1 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.0 0.0.0.31 area 0 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.248 0.0.0.3 area 0 RT-1(config)# router ospf 99 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.0 255.255.255.224 area 0 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.248 255.255.255.248 area 0 27. Refer to the exhibit. Router LC-1 needs to be configured to provide communication between the networks shown. Which group of commands will configure EIGRP on LC-1 to work within this network? LC-1(config)# router eigrp 1 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.4 0.0.0.3 area 0 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.128 0.0.0.63 area 0 LC-1(config)# router eigrp 1 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary ***LC-1(config)# router eigrp 1 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.0 LC-1(config)# router eigrp 1 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.0 0.0.0.3 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.4 0.0.0.3 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.128 0.0.0.192 28. Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet ports. The Cisco switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At which layer of the three-layer design model do these switches operate? physical distribution data link ***access core 29. Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a route module installed. Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to route between the VLANs. At which layer of the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1 operate? physical data link core access network ***distribution 30. Performance of the network shown in the exhibit has become poor since the addition of hosts to the network. The network administrator suspects that excessive collisions are causing this problem. If the network is using hubs, what should be done to reduce the collisions? Add a router to every hub segment. Replace hubs with access points. ***Replace hubs with switches. Add additional hubs. 31. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will remove the static address from the MAC address table on a Cisco 2950 switch? VALLYGREEN(config)# no mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet interface 0/4 vlan 1 VALLYGREEN(config)# no mac-address-table 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet 0/4 VALLYGREEN(config-if)# no mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 vlan 1 ***VALLYGREEN(config)# no mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 vlan 1 interface fastethernet 0/4 32. Refer to the exhibit. If the exhibited network is running EIGRP, which subnetworks can be assigned to the serial links between LC-1 and the other routers? 192.168.43.4/30 and 192.168.43.8/30 192.168.43.32/30 and 192.168.43.160/30 192.168.43.96/30 and 192.168.43.100/30 192.168.43.160/30 and 192.168.43.164/30 ***192.168.43.192/30 and 192.168.43.196/30 33. Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs? access backbone ***distribution core 34. Refer to the graphic. The host on VLAN 2 cannot communicate with the host on VLAN 3. Which of the following could be the problem based on the output of the show interface fastethernet 0/1 command from the switch? The switch port 1 is not set to access mode. ***The router interface connected to switch port 1 is shut down. The router is not configured for trunking. The switch port is not configured for full duplex or a speed of 100 Mbps. 35. Which two statements describe the Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.) It can only be used in networks in which routers are installed. It can only be used in networks in which both routers and switches are used. ***It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use. ***It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies. It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies. 36. Refer to the exhibit. The link between switches SW-A and SW-B needs to provide connectivity between hosts on the same VLAN across the two switches. How should these ports be configured? as data channel ports as access ports ***as trunking ports as root ports as inter-VLAN ports 37. What does a constant amber SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch? The switch is going through POST. The switch is in the process of initializing ports. ***The switch has failed POST. The switch has passed POST and is working properly. 38. For what two reasons would a network administrator choose to enable authentication for OSPF exchanges? (Choose two.) ***to prevent routing information from being falsified to reduce OSPF information exchange overhead to ensure that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or EIGRP updates to encrypt routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing ***to ensure that routing information comes from a valid source 39. What do EIGRP routers use to establish and maintain adjacency relationships with neighboring routers? the exchange of routing tables with directly attached routers ***the exchange of hello packets with neighboring routers the learning of new routes from neighbors the comparison of known routes to information received in updates the exchange of neighbor tables with directly attached routers 40. Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands is required to configure switch port Fa0/11 for host A? SW-A(config)# interface fastethernet 0/11 SW-A(config-if)# vlan 11 SW-A(config)# interface vlan 11 SW-A(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SW-A(config)# interface vlan 11 SW-A(config-if)# switchport mode access 11 ***SW-A(config)# interface fastethernet 0/11 SW-A(config-if)# switchport mode access SW-A(config-if)# switchport access vlan 11 41. Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown? The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames. The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives. ***The switch is sending and receiving data frames. The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data. 42. Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of this network design? It provides multiple paths for Layer 2 broadcasts to circulate through the network. It allows spanning tree to forward traffic across redundant paths simultaneously. It maximizes the number of ports available for users. ***It provides multiple paths for connectivity in the event of link failure. 43. Refer to exhibit. Routers Central and Remote are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The Central router can ping the Remote router serial interface and Remote can ping the serial interface of Central. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is the most likely problem? A clock rate is missing from one of the serial interfaces. A gateway of last resort is required. Subnets cannot be used with RIPv1. ***VLSM is not supported by RIPv1. 44. If a company is using the IP address 172.16.0.0 and wants to create subnets using VLSM, which combination of addresses and masks will be valid? 172.16.128.0 /18 and 172.16.128.192 /26 172.16.160.0 /20 and 172.16.168.0 /20 ***172.16.32.0 /19 and 172.16.64.128 /25 172.16.192.0 /18 and 172.16.224.0 /19 45. Which of the following features do RIPv1 and RIPv2 have in common? (Choose three.) ***hop count as a metric classless routing ***use split horizon ***maximum hop count is 15 broadcast updates no authentication 46. Which Ethernet switching mode has the least latency and lowest reliability? ***fast-forward asymmetric store-and-forward fragment-free symmetric 47. Which of the following statements is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs? VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard. VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network. ***All VTP hello packets are routed through VLAN 1 interfaces. Changes made to the VLAN configuration in the domain can be communicated to all switches dynamically. ***new questions, 10x to cyberhawk*** 20. What are two benefits that switches, without VLANs configured, provide to a network when compared to a hub? (Choose two.) They allow creation of permanent virtual circuits. They decrease network throughput. They shrink the size of broadcast domains. ***They increase the number of collision domains. ***They allow existing bandwidth to be more efficiently utilized. 29. Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs? VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard. VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network. A switch configured for VTP can belong to more than one VTP domain. ***, VTP dynamically communicates VLAN additions, deletions and modifications to all switches in the same VTP domain. VTP advertisements are passed over access links to other switches. http://inafridge.com/stuff/cisco/ccna3-final.htm

@wiki::42/ 2007-05-29 2007-05-29T15:47:30Z

English FormE-2b CCNA3 Version3.1 Final - 2006 Fall 1. Refer to the exhibit. The network has converged and Switch_6 has been elected root bridge of the STP tree. However, network traffic analysis indicates that Switch_1 would be a better root bridge. How can the network administrator make this change, assuming that the spanning-tree priorities are at the default settings? Set the bridge priority of Switch_1 to 32,768. Set the bridge priority of Switch_6 to 65,565. ***Set the bridge priority of Switch_1 to 1. Set the bridge priority of Switch_6 to 255. 2. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off? when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes when a router has more than three active interfaces ***when a router has discontiguous networks attached when a router has less than five active interfaces 3. Refer to the output in the exhibit. What can be determined from the information shown? VTP has been enabled for all ports. Hosts in VLAN11 and VLAN22 must have IP addresses in the same subnet in order for them to exchange data. Three ports have been assigned to the management VLAN. ***ARP requests issued by the host on port Fa0/12 will be seen by all hosts on VLAN33. 4. Refer to the OSPF network in the exhibit. Router R2 has been elected DR, but router R1 is the more powerful router. How can the network administrator configure R1 to force it to be elected as DR? R1(config)# ospf priority 1 R1(config)# ip ospf priority 255 R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 R1(config-if)# ospf priority 0 R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 R1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0 ***R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 R1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255 5. Which of the following are attributes of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.) Periodic updates are sent every 120 seconds to neighboring routers. Each router sends its entire routing table to neighboring routers. ***Routers send updates when a change in the network is detected. ***Link-state protocols converge more rapidly than distance vector protocols. After convergence, link-state protocols use more bandwidth than distance vector protocols use. ***Link-state protocols are less prone to routing loops than distance vector protocols. 6. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of DR elections in the OSPF network shown? (Choose three.) ***CTL will be DR of the 172.16.4.0/24 network. ID3 will be DR of the 172.16.4.0/24 network. ***CTL will be DR of the 172.16.5.0/24 network. ID1 will be DR of the 172.16.5.0/24 network. ***CTL will be DR of the 172.16.8.0/24 network. ID2 will be DR of the 172.16.8.0/24 network. 7. The network administrator shown in the exhibit is connected to an Ethernet LAN port on ACC-1. The administrator needs to verify the configuration of the newly installed switch ACC-3. What must be done so that the administrator can access ACC-3 with a web browser? (Choose three.) ***Establish the Layer 3 connectivity of the host to ACC-3. Set the password on the management VLAN. Configure the hostname on ACC-3. ***Activate the HTTP service on ACC-3. ***Configure IP addressing parameters on ACC-3. 8. Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.) ***RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new network. RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface. The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised. ***A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface. ***The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands. RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added network. 9. Multiple routers have been configured with EIGRP as the routing protocol for use in the corporate network. What is true of the operation of this network? (Choose three.) Only link-state protocols will run in the network. ***Routing information in the form of partial updates will be sent in response to topology changes. ***The network can support multiple routed protocols. ***Hello packets are used to discover and verify the status of neighboring routers. Routing updates are broadcast to all other routers in the network. Routing updates that consist of entire routing tables are sent to neighboring routers. 10. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch? interface vlan 2 ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0 no shutdown interface vlan 3 ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0 no shutdown ***interface fastethernet 0/0 no shutdown interface fastethernet 0/0.2 encapsulation dot1q 2 ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0 interface fastethernet 0/0.3 encapsulation dot1q 3 ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0 interface vlan 2 switchport mode trunk dot1q interface vlan 3 switchport mode trunk dot11 interface fastethernet 0/0 mode trunk dot1q 2 3 ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0 11. Refer to the exhibit. Two Catalyst switches are connected, and both switches have ports configured for the Sales and Marketing VLANs as shown. What will allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate with one another across different switches? STP VTP routing ***trunking 12. Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch SW-A with a default gateway. Assuming the switch IP address is 192.168.120.12/24, what command string will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch? SW-A(config)# ip gateway 192.168.120.1 SW-A(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.120.255 SW-A(config)# ip route 192.168.120.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0 SW-A(config)# ip default-route 192.168.120.254 ***SW-A(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.120.254 13. What is the first step in the spanning-tree process? elect a designated switch use a router to locate a default gateway ***elect a root bridge determine the path cost of each active port on the switch 14. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as the root bridge in a spanning-tree network? highest path cost highest priority number highest Layer 2 address ***lowest priority number lowest path cost lowest Layer 2 address 15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value of 64 shown in the routing table? It is the administrative distance. It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates how many hops are in the network. It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link. ***It is the metric, which is cost. 16. A new switch has been added to the network and it needs to support error-free switching. Which switching mode should be configured on the new switch? cut-through fragment-free ***store and forward auto-sensing 17. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1? 198.18.0.0/16 ***198.18.48.0/21 198.18.32.0/22 198.18.48.0/23 198.18.49.0/23 198.18.52.0/22 18. A network administrator asked an assistant to remove several VLANs from a switch. When the assistant entered in the no vlan 1 command an error was received. What was the cause of the error? VLANs can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from the VLAN assignment. VLANs can only be deleted by the user that created them. VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its duties. ***VLAN1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted. The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur. 19. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are there in the topology shown, assuming that VLANs are not configured on the switches? one ***two three four six eight 20. What are two of the benefits that switches provide to a network without VLANs configured? (Choose two.) They allow creation of permanent virtual circuits. They decrease network throughput. They shrink the size of broadcast domains. ***They help eliminate collision domains. ***They allow existing bandwidth to be more efficiently utilized. 21. Refer to the network and command output shown in the exhibit. A network administrator located at the Headquarters site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the Pacific office. Which command can be used to gain remote access to the Pacific LAN switch, assuming the switch is assigned the IP address 198.19.27.251/24? Headquarters# telnet Pacific Headquarters# dial Pacific 198.19.27.251 Headquarters(config)# line vty 0 4 Headquarters(config-line)# telnet Pacific ***Headquarters# telnet 198.19.27.251 22. Which three statements describe full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.) ***It utilizes 100% of the bandwidth in both directions. It requires two wires. It increases the number of broadcast domains in the network. ***It allows data to be received and sent simultaneously. ***It reduces the number of collisions. It provides between 60% and 80% of the bandwidth in both directions. 23. The following command was added to a router configuration: It will create a default route using the interface with the IP address 198.19.27.249 as the next hop. The route will be marked with an "C" in the routing table. ***It will create a static route to the 172.26.153.0/24 network. All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded to the 172.26.153.0/24 network. ***Routes to network 172.26.153.0 that are learned dynamically will not be used to route packets as long as this configuration command is in effect. 24. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge, if the switches are configured with their default priority values? Switch_1 Switch_2 Switch_3 Switch_4 ***Switch_5 Switch_6 25. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration commands will direct outbound traffic from Corp_1 to the ISP and inbound traffic from the ISP to network 192.168.1.0/24? ***Corp_1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0 ISP(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1 Corp_1(config)# ip route 198.19.27.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/0 ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1 Corp_1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0 ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0 Corp_1(config)# ip route 198.19.27.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/0 ISP(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1 26. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct OSPF configuration for router RT-1? RT-1(config)# router ospf 1 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.0 0.0.0.63 area 0 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.248 0.0.0.3 area 0 RT-1(config)# router ospf 0 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.248 0.0.0.31 area 0 ***RT-1(config)# router ospf 1 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.0 0.0.0.31 area 0 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.248 0.0.0.3 area 0 RT-1(config)# router ospf 99 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.0 255.255.255.224 area 0 RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.248 255.255.255.248 area 0 27. Refer to the exhibit. Router LC-1 needs to be configured to provide communication between the networks shown. Which group of commands will configure EIGRP on LC-1 to work within this network? LC-1(config)# router eigrp 1 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.4 0.0.0.3 area 0 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.128 0.0.0.63 area 0 LC-1(config)# router eigrp 1 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary ***LC-1(config)# router eigrp 1 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.0 LC-1(config)# router eigrp 1 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.0 0.0.0.3 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.4 0.0.0.3 LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.128 0.0.0.192 28. Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet ports. The Cisco switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At which layer of the three-layer design model do these switches operate? physical distribution data link ***access core 29. Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a route module installed. Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to route between the VLANs. At which layer of the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1 operate? physical data link core access network ***distribution 30. Performance of the network shown in the exhibit has become poor since the addition of hosts to the network. The network administrator suspects that excessive collisions are causing this problem. If the network is using hubs, what should be done to reduce the collisions? Add a router to every hub segment. Replace hubs with access points. ***Replace hubs with switches. Add additional hubs. 31. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will remove the static address from the MAC address table on a Cisco 2950 switch? VALLYGREEN(config)# no mac-address-table entry 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet interface 0/4 vlan 1 VALLYGREEN(config)# no mac-address-table 00e0.2917.1884 fastethernet 0/4 VALLYGREEN(config-if)# no mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 vlan 1 ***VALLYGREEN(config)# no mac-address-table static 00e0.2917.1884 vlan 1 interface fastethernet 0/4 32. Refer to the exhibit. If the exhibited network is running EIGRP, which subnetworks can be assigned to the serial links between LC-1 and the other routers? 192.168.43.4/30 and 192.168.43.8/30 192.168.43.32/30 and 192.168.43.160/30 192.168.43.96/30 and 192.168.43.100/30 192.168.43.160/30 and 192.168.43.164/30 ***192.168.43.192/30 and 192.168.43.196/30 33. Which layer of the hierarchical three-layer design model combines traffic from multiple IDFs? access backbone ***distribution core 34. Refer to the graphic. The host on VLAN 2 cannot communicate with the host on VLAN 3. Which of the following could be the problem based on the output of the show interface fastethernet 0/1 command from the switch? The switch port 1 is not set to access mode. ***The router interface connected to switch port 1 is shut down. The router is not configured for trunking. The switch port is not configured for full duplex or a speed of 100 Mbps. 35. Which two statements describe the Spanning Tree Protocol? (Choose two.) It can only be used in networks in which routers are installed. It can only be used in networks in which both routers and switches are used. ***It can only be used in networks in which Layer 2 switching is in use. ***It eliminates Layer 2 loops in network topologies. It eliminates the need for redundant physical paths in network topologies. 36. Refer to the exhibit. The link between switches SW-A and SW-B needs to provide connectivity between hosts on the same VLAN across the two switches. How should these ports be configured? as data channel ports as access ports ***as trunking ports as root ports as inter-VLAN ports 37. What does a constant amber SYSTEM LED indicate on a Catalyst switch? The switch is going through POST. The switch is in the process of initializing ports. ***The switch has failed POST. The switch has passed POST and is working properly. 38. For what two reasons would a network administrator choose to enable authentication for OSPF exchanges? (Choose two.) ***to prevent routing information from being falsified to reduce OSPF information exchange overhead to ensure that OSPF routing information takes priority over RIP or EIGRP updates to encrypt routing tables to prevent unauthorized viewing ***to ensure that routing information comes from a valid source 39. What do EIGRP routers use to establish and maintain adjacency relationships with neighboring routers? the exchange of routing tables with directly attached routers ***the exchange of hello packets with neighboring routers the learning of new routes from neighbors the comparison of known routes to information received in updates the exchange of neighbor tables with directly attached routers 40. Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands is required to configure switch port Fa0/11 for host A? SW-A(config)# interface fastethernet 0/11 SW-A(config-if)# vlan 11 SW-A(config)# interface vlan 11 SW-A(config-if)# switchport mode trunk SW-A(config)# interface vlan 11 SW-A(config-if)# switchport mode access 11 ***SW-A(config)# interface fastethernet 0/11 SW-A(config-if)# switchport mode access SW-A(config-if)# switchport access vlan 11 41. Refer to the exhibit. What does "FORWARDING" mean in the command output shown? The switch is receiving BPDUs, but not sending data frames. The switch is participating in an election process by forwarding the BPDUs it receives. ***The switch is sending and receiving data frames. The switch is receiving BPDUs and populating the MAC address table, but not sending data. 42. Refer to the exhibit. What is an advantage of this network design? It provides multiple paths for Layer 2 broadcasts to circulate through the network. It allows spanning tree to forward traffic across redundant paths simultaneously. It maximizes the number of ports available for users. ***It provides multiple paths for connectivity in the event of link failure. 43. Refer to exhibit. Routers Central and Remote are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The Central router can ping the Remote router serial interface and Remote can ping the serial interface of Central. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is the most likely problem? A clock rate is missing from one of the serial interfaces. A gateway of last resort is required. Subnets cannot be used with RIPv1. ***VLSM is not supported by RIPv1. 44. If a company is using the IP address 172.16.0.0 and wants to create subnets using VLSM, which combination of addresses and masks will be valid? 172.16.128.0 /18 and 172.16.128.192 /26 172.16.160.0 /20 and 172.16.168.0 /20 ***172.16.32.0 /19 and 172.16.64.128 /25 172.16.192.0 /18 and 172.16.224.0 /19 45. Which of the following features do RIPv1 and RIPv2 have in common? (Choose three.) ***hop count as a metric classless routing ***use split horizon ***maximum hop count is 15 broadcast updates no authentication 46. Which Ethernet switching mode has the least latency and lowest reliability? ***fast-forward asymmetric store-and-forward fragment-free symmetric 47. Which of the following statements is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs? VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard. VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network. ***All VTP hello packets are routed through VLAN 1 interfaces. Changes made to the VLAN configuration in the domain can be communicated to all switches dynamically. ***new questions, 10x to cyberhawk*** 20. What are two benefits that switches, without VLANs configured, provide to a network when compared to a hub? (Choose two.) They allow creation of permanent virtual circuits. They decrease network throughput. They shrink the size of broadcast domains. ***They increase the number of collision domains. ***They allow existing bandwidth to be more efficiently utilized. 29. Which statement is true when VTP is configured on a switched network that incorporates VLANs? VTP is only compatible with the 802.1Q standard. VTP adds to the complexity of managing a switched network. A switch configured for VTP can belong to more than one VTP domain. ***, VTP dynamically communicates VLAN additions, deletions and modifications to all switches in the same VTP domain. VTP advertisements are passed over access links to other switches. http://inafridge.com/stuff/cisco/ccna3-final.htm ip route 172.26.153.0 255.255.255.0 198.19.27.249 What two effects will this command have? (Choose two.)

@wiki::41/ 2007-05-01 2008-03-08T15:29:40Z

1 The routers in the diagram are configured for RIP v2 on network 1.0.0.0. Additional static routes are configured as shown in the graphic. What will RA do with a packet it receives on interface 1.1.1.1 that is destined for host 2.2.1.1 on a remote network? buffer it until it learns a route to 2.2.0.0 forward it to 1.1.1.2 forward it to 1.1.2.2 forward it to 1.1.3.2¡Ì forward it to 2.1.1.2 drop the packet 2 A redundant switched topology is being installed in an enterprise. Which of the following should be configured to ensure that this network operates efficiently? TTL STP¡Ì BID BPDU ARP 3 Users are complaining that resources housed on a remote network have become unavailable. Which command can the administrator use to check whether this destination network is known to the local router? router# show ip route¡Ì router# show route router# show ip rip router# show rip router# show protocol 4 How can MAC address table entries be removed from a switch? (Choose two.) Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses.¡Ì The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries. The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.¡Ì The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries. Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port. 5 Which of the following are performed by a switch port that is in the forwarding state in an STP network? (Choose three.) discarding data traffic receiving data traffic¡Ì forwarding data traffic¡Ì recalculating BPDUs receiving BPDUs¡Ì blocking BPDUs 6 Which of the following statements about link-state advertisements are correct? (Choose three.) LSAs are sent to neighboring routers on a regular basis. LSAs are used by a router to determine if a neighboring router is online. LSAs are multicast to all routers in the area.¡Ì LSAs contain the topological database of the sending router. Routers use LSAs to learn about the topology of the entire network.¡Ì LSAs are sent when the router detects a topology change.¡Ì 7 Which type of address does OSPF use to initiate new adjacencies and to ensure that neighbor routers are functioning? broadcast loopback multicast¡Ì unicast 8 Which LAN design requirement addresses user-to user and user-to-application connectivity? adaptability manageability scalability functionality¡Ì 9 What affects network availability? (Choose three.) location throughput¡Ì user proficiency response time¡Ì workstation speed access to resources¡Ì 10 The spanning tree election process has taken place on a network containing five bridges. How many total root bridges have been elected? 1¡Ì 3 5 one per trunk port 11 What problems can occur on a redundant switched network? (Choose three.) A destination device may receive a frame more than once.¡Ì The switch may learn an incorrect MAC address-to-port mapping.¡Ì Broadcast storms may make the network appear down.¡Ì A frame may be dropped before reaching its destination. The network may not converge. 12 Using Telnet, a network administrator is unable to log in to a switch located at another office in order to make configuration changes to it. What could be the problem? The managmement station does not have access to a full-duplex Fast Ethernet link on the switch. VLAN 1 on the switch is not configured for TCP/IP network access.¡Ì The switch must be managed from the local LAN. The switch hostname has not been set. 13 A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink as shown in the graphic. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 1. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet? The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.¡Ì The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3. The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router. 14 Which of the following statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.) VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.¡Ì All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.¡Ì Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.¡Ì All interfaces are set to auto. Enable password is configured as cisco. The flash directory contains the IOS image. 15 Which of the following are features of the distribution layer? (Choose three.) VLAN routing¡Ì MAC layer filtering security¡Ì microsegmentation packet filtering with access control lists¡Ì workgroup access 16 How do EIGRP routers actively maintain neighbor relationships? They dynamically learn new routes. They continously monitor the status of their own ports. They exchange their entire neighbor tables with directly attached routers. They exchange hello packets with their neighbors every five seconds, by default.¡Ì They compare known routes to received updates. 17 Which of the following is the metric that OSPF uses to determine the best route to a destination network? administrative distance cost¡Ì hop count link delay 18 In which STP state does a switch port only receive BPDUs? blocking¡Ì learning disabled listening forwarding 19 A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to most efficiently provide for the number of host addresses required by Router C, while wasting the fewest addresses? /31 /30 /29 /28 /27 /26¡Ì 20 Which of the following are considered limitations of RIP v1? (Choose three.) It does not support authentication.¡Ì It sends updates as broadcasts on 255.255.255.255.¡Ì It does not send subnet mask information in its updates.¡Ì It is not widely supported in multivendor routing environments. It does not support equal-cost load balancing. 21 Which of the switches shown in the graphic will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology? Cat-A¡Ì Cat-B Cat-C Cat-D 22 What is the purpose of a default route? A default route will cause packets addressed to unknown destination networks to be dropped. A default route will cause packets addressed to unknown destination networks to be sent to a designated router interface.¡Ì A default route will cause packets addressed to known destinations to prefer a specified path to the destination network. A default route will direct packets for all destination networks to a designated router and router interface. 23 Which of the following tables does DUAL use to calculate the lowest cost routes to each destination? routing table and topology table neighbor table and routing table neighbor table and topology table¡Ì neighbor table and adjacency table 24 Which strategies can a company take to enhance network reliability through redundancy? (Choose two.) Eliminate single points of failure.¡Ì Flood frames for unknown destinations. Send multiple frames to an end device. Design alternate routes to a destination.¡Ì Forward MAC address tables to all switches on the network. Eliminate multiple paths to the same destination. 25 The network 192.1.1.0 has been subnetted for a network design. The 192.1.1.16/28 subnet has been chosen for further subnetting to provide for point-to-point serial link addressing. How many serial link subnets can be created while minimizing the number of wasted addresses? 1 2 4¡Ì 6 8 16 26 Which command is used to copy a backup configuration file from a server to the non-volatile memory of a switch? Switch# copy startup-config tftp Switch# copy tftp startup-config¡Ì Switch# copy NVRAM tftp Switch# copy tftp NVRAM Switch# copy tftp flash 27 Which of the following statements describe trunking? (Choose two.) Trunking bundles multiple virtual links over one physical link.¡Ì Trunking decreases the number of switch ports available for hosts. Trunking complicates the physical interconnection of switches in the wiring closet. Trunks can be configured to carry traffic for several VLANs between switches.¡Ì Trunking requires one switch port for each configured VLAN. 28 What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state? The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network. The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state. The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails. There is no activity on the route to that network. The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.¡Ì 29 Which of the following are characteristics of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.) collection of routing information from within a defined area of the network¡Ì view of network from neighbor's perspective independent calculation of best paths to all destinations¡Ì propagation of incorrect information minimized¡Ì demonstration of universal compatibility and simplicity 30 Which VLAN implementation method requires less administration in the wiring closet and can provide notification if an unauthorized user attempts to connect to the network? port-centric static dynamic¡Ì geographic 31 What is the term that describes the cabling between the MDF and IDF locations as shown in the graphic? horizontal cross-connect horizontal cross-cabling vertical cross-connect¡Ì vertical cross-cabling 32 Which of the following are layers in the hierarchical design model? (Choose three.) gateway access¡Ì distribution¡Ì network core¡Ì domain 33 A switched Ethernet network is experiencing unusually heavy traffic to the extent that network delays have become intolerable. While investigating the problem, a network administrator disconnects a redundant uplink between two switches. The excessive traffic quickly subsides. What was the likely cause of this problem? broadcast storms¡Ì routing loops multiple frame copies load balancing unicast frame forwarding 34 What does the router shown in the graphic provide to the network? (Choose three.) forwarding of packets between VLANs¡Ì forwarding of broadcast frames between VLANs improved efficiency in bandwidth utilization ¡Ì connectivity of local hosts with remote resources¡Ì elimination of VLAN configuration errors prevention of switching loops 35 What is required for OSPF routers to share routing information? designated routers a backup designated router neighbor adjacencies¡Ì an NBMA network topology links configured on the 224.0.0.0 network 36 An entire workgroup has lost network connectivity. After shutting down and restarting the workgroup switch in the wiring closet, it is observed that the switch system LED is amber. What should be done? The switch should be reconfigured. The switch should be replaced in order to restore connectivity to the workgroup.¡Ì The switch should be allowed to complete POST before its configuration is checked. The switch has returned to service, however its configuration should be checked. 37 What will be the result of OSPF DR/BDR elections in the network shown in the diagram? (Choose three.) R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.1.0/24 network. R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.2.0/24 network.¡Ì R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.3.0/24 network. R2 will be the DR for the 10.1.1.0/24 network.¡Ì R3 will be the DR for the 10.1.2.0/24 network. R4 will be the DR for the 10.1.3.0/24 network.¡Ì 38 A new color laser printer has been configured on the Marketing VLAN. Users on the Sales VLAN would also like to have access to this printer. What must be done in order for the Sales department users to be able to access this device? A root bridge must be elected to allow the traffic to cross. A bridge must be configured with a compatible bridging protocol. A router must be installed and configured to connect the VLANs.¡Ì No traffic should be allowed to pass between VLANs. The print server must be configured to accept connections over VTP. 39 Which of the following are characteristics of a router-on-a-stick design for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.) multiple logical router interfaces¡Ì multiple physical router interfaces one logical router interface one physical router interface¡Ì multiple logical networks defined for each VLAN one logical network defined for each VLAN¡Ì 40 How many collision domains will there be in the entire network shown in the graphic if Hub1 is replaced with a Layer 2 switch? 2 3 4¡Ì 7 8 10 41 Router XYZ is to be added to OSPF area 0. Which of the following is the correct syntax for enabling OSPF on this router? XYZ(config)# router ospf XYZ(config)# router ospf 0 XYZ(config)# router ospf 10¡Ì XYZ(config)# router ospf process 0 XYZ(config)# router ospf process 10 XYZ(config)# router ospf processid 10 42 Which distribution layer devices enhance Layer 2 switching with Layer 3 functionality? (Choose two.) multilayer routers multilayer switches¡Ì bridges managed hubs VLANs a switch with a router module¡Ì 43 The LAN devices are configured as shown in the diagram. Why are Host1 and Host2 unable to communicate? (Choose three.) A router is required to forward traffic between the hosts.¡Ì The switch ports are on different VLANs.¡Ì The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN. The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network. The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet. The hosts are configured on different logical networks.¡Ì 44 A switch that was previously attached to another VTP management domain is added to an existing VTP domain. VLAN information on all the other switches in the existing VTP management domain is lost. Why did this happen? Adding the new switch caused spanning tree protocol to recalculate the network and erase the existing VLAN configurations. The new switch BID was higher than the existing VTP server, causing the new switch to broadcast incorrect VLAN information to the domain. The new switch had a higher VTP configuration revision number than the other switches in the domain and erased the VLAN information on the VTP server and VTP clients.¡Ì The new switch exceeded the maximum number of switches permitted in a management domain. The switch advertised VTP version 2 information to the network, causing the existing VLAN data to be overwritten. 45 While deleting the VLANs from a switch, a network administrator receives the following message, "A default VLAN may not be deleted". What did the administrator do to cause this message to be displayed? The no vlan all command was entered. The no switchport mode access command was not properly entered. The no vlan 1 command was entered.¡Ì The no vlan command was entered in database configuration mode. The no default vlan command was entered. The administrator attempted to delete a VLAN that still has switch ports assigned to it. 46 How does an Ethernet switch improve network performance? (Choose three.) allows multiple frames to be forwarded simultaneously¡Ì decreases the number of broadcast domains increases network latency eliminates unnecessary broadcast frames reduces the size of collision domains¡Ì increases the number of collision domains¡Ì 47 Refer to the graphic. Which point must be reached before a bridge will forward a frame? A B C D E F¡Ì 48 What do switches configured with VLANs provide to an enterprise network? (Choose three.) bridging between VLANs security¡Ì broadcast control¡Ì physical grouping of users logical grouping of users¡Ì enlargement of collison domains 49 Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.) Configure RIP v2 with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.¡Ì Configure RIP v2 with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface. Configure the router with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised. Apply a network host address and subnet mask to the newly activated interface.¡Ì Activate the routing protocol with the router rip version 2 command.¡Ì Configure RIP on the other routers in the enterprise with an entry for the newly added network. 50 An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the graphic? forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3¡Ì add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table forward the frame out Interface3 discard the frame forward the frame out all interfaces forward the frame out Interface2 51 Which algorithm does EIGRP use to calculate routes? PDM RTP DUAL¡Ì LSA 52 If EIGRP routing is employed and the successor route to a destination becomes unreachable or unreliable, which of the following would be used as a replacement? the route flagged as active in the topology table the feasible successor route in the topology table¡Ì the default gateway in the neighbor table the primary designated route in the topology table the backup designated router in the routing table 53 When the mode LED on a Cisco switch is set to STAT, what port status is indicated by a green flashing port LED? no link port is not forwarding port is sending or receiving data¡Ì port is sending, but not receiving link fault 54 Refer to the topology and link path costs shown in the graphic. What is the total cost of the path that OSPF will use between the Data_Center router and the BldgA router? 2 11 12¡Ì 65 66 55 Under which of the following circumstances might two routers have trouble establishing a neighbor relationship in an OSPF network? (Choose three.) Hello packets are not sent from either neighbor.¡Ì The interfaces are on different network types.¡Ì The network command has put the connected interfaces into the same OSPF area. Slow network connections cause OSPF advertisements to time out. Authentication passwords or keys are different.¡Ì 56 Which Ethernet device has the highest latency factor? transceiver hub MAU router¡Ì switch 57 How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.) They both use hop count as a metric.¡Ì They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.¡Ì They both broadcast their updates to their neighbors. They both send subnet mask information in their updates. They both provide for authentication of update sources. They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.¡Ì 58 What is required for full-duplex Ethernet transmissions? one pair of conductors in the cable and a switched connection between each node two pairs of conductors in the cable and a switched connection between each node¡Ì two pairs of conductors in the cable and a non-switched connection between each node four pairs of conductors in the cable and a non-switched connection between each node 59 Which interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.) OSPF¡Ì RIP v1 RIP v2¡Ì EIGRP¡Ì BGP IGRP 60 Which of the following statements regarding server placement are correct? (Choose two.) Enterprise servers should be located in the MDF.¡Ì Enterprise servers should be located in an IDF. Workgroup servers should be located in the MDF. Workgroup servers should be located in an IDF.¡Ì Both workgroup and enterprise servers should be located in the MDF. Both workgroup and enterprise servers should be located in an IDF. 61 What is the minimum amount of bandwidth that Layer 2 LAN switches should provide to servers? 1 Mbps 10 Mbps 100 Mbps¡Ì 1000 Mbps 1 Gbps (http://www.vreal.biz/Cet2615/exams/ccna3_sem3_final.txt)

@wiki::40/ 2007-05-01 2008-03-21T23:40:02Z

CCNA3 TEST & ANSWER --- SEM4 CH6 1 Why are SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings considered a security risk? SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c encapsulations are not encrypted by default. SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c community strings are sent as cleartext. √ SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c are limited to 32-bit counters. SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c uses a connectionless protocol. 2 Which statements are true regarding configuring SNMP? (Choose three.) It is best to use the default read-only community strings in enterprise networks. It is not advisable to use the default read-write community string in an enterprise network. √ More than one read-only community string is supported. √ Authorized management stations can modify MIB objects with read-write access specified. √ The maximum number of read-write strings supported is one. 3 Which of the following is a collection of software which includes a GUI interface to allow the network administrator to monitor and manage the network? network management application √ network management agent management information base network management protocol 4 Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the network? network management station network management database management information base√ database information agent 5 Which type of information does SNMP collect about a router? (Choose three.) routing table entries number of certain types of error messages received √ number of bytes in and out of a device √ status of network interfaces going up and down √ number of protocols running on workstations 6 Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.) Linux √ Windows 98 Windows ME Windows XP √ Windows 2000 √ 7 Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network management station with important but unsolicited information? query broadcast ICMP ping trap √ poll 8 How does RMON gather statistics on a segment? analyzes traps on the segment polls packets on the segment analyzes every frame on the segment √ analyzes source and destination addresses 9 Which of the following are examples of network management applications? (Choose two.) Windows 2000 Professional Ciscoworks2000 √ HP Openview √ Red Hat Linux Cisco ConfigMaker 10 In the above illustration, which configuration commands can be used to specify the location of a managed device and the main system contacts for the device? (Choose two.) SanJose(config-if)# snmp-server SanJose Atlanta(config)# snmp-server contact JPSmith √ Atlanta(config)# snmp contact JPSmith SanJose(config)# snmp-server location SanJose √ Chicago#(config)# snmp chicago 11 For which platform was UNIX first marketed commercially? workstations and servers workstations network servers √ large mainframe systems 12 How does SNMPv3 address the security shortcomings of SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c? improved SMI features support for centralized and distributed management secure access to MIBs √ control of heterogeneous networks 13 Which statements describe the Windows 2000 operating system family? (Choose three.) .NET Server was designed to run enterprise level web and FTP services. √ Active Directory services run on both Windows 2000 Professional and Windows 2000 Server. The entire family of Windows 2000 operating systems can operate as a file, print, FTP or web server. √ Both Windows 2000 Professional and Server can support up to 256 simultaneous dialup sessions. .NET server was designed to compete with Linux and Unix. √ 14 An SNMPv1 agent would issue a GetResponse message to reply to which NMS requests? (Choose three.) GetRequest √ GetBulkRequest GetNextRequest √ SetRequest √ GetNextbulkRequest 15 Which of the following describes the community strings used for SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c? (Choose two.) The community strings are sent using UDP. √ The read only string on most devices is set to private. The read/write string on most devices is set to public. Only the NMA needs to be configured with the community strings. The community strings are sent across the network in cleartext. √ 16 Which features are supported by the Mac OS X system that make it a competitive choice for operating systems? (Choose four.) protected memory √ sixty-two bit addressing preemptive multitasking √ open source operating system code symmetric multiprocessing √ Appletalk-to-Windows network connectivity √ 17 Which command would enable logging on all supported destinations? Router(config)# logging 131.152.0.0 Router(config)# logging routerA Router(config)# logging on √ Router(config)# logging enable

@wiki::39/ 2007-05-01 2007-05-01T11:56:28Z

CCNA3 TEST & ANSWER ---SEM4 CH5 1 A ping is sent to address 192.168.50.10 from the Peanut router. Which DLCI will be used to send the ping? 110 √ 115 220 225 2 Which methods are used to minimize heavy traffic on a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.) FRADs or routers set ECN bits to request that the Frame Relay switch reduce the flow of frames on the link. Windowing is used to reduce the size of the frames sent across the link. The Frame Relay switch will drop low priority packets that have the DE bit set. √ When a switch sees its queue increasing, it notifies DTEs to reduce the flow of traffic. √ If congestion occurs, all frames are dropped until the congestion clears. 3 What is the purpose of the FCS field in a Frame Relay frame? It serves to distinguish one frame from the next. It is used to signal network congestion. It is used to detect if the frame has been corrupted and should be discarded. √ It determines which VC should be used for transmission. 4 What does a DLCI of 1023 indicate about a frame? The LMI type is ANSI. The LMI type is IETF. The LMI type is Cisco.√ The LMI type is Q933a. The encapsulation is Cisco. The encapsulation is IETF. 5 Which of the following DLCIs are reserved? 16 127 255 1023 √ 2048 6 Which of the following allow the router to map data link layer addresses to network layer addresses in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.) ARP RARP Proxy ARP Inverse ARP √ LMI status messages √ ICMP 7 What is created between two DTEs in a Frame Relay network? switched parallel circuit permanent virtual circuit √ limited access circuit ISDN circuit Frame Relay circuit 8 Which statement identifies a reason for using subinterfaces in Frame Relay networks? Subinterfaces overcome routing update and split-horizon issues that occur with multipoint physical interfaces. √ A subinterface does not require an IP address and therefore saves address space. Multipoint subinterfaces override the split-horizon rules and allow broadcast traffic to be forwarded by default. Subinterfaces provide greater reliability and reachability in Frame Relay networks by requiring a mesh topology for network configurations. Subinterfaces increase the number of DLCIs that can be configured in a Frame Relay network. 9 Which features make Frame Relay technology a cost-effective alternative to a mesh of access lines? (Choose three.) allows a single interface to support multiple PVCs √ minimizes the equipment required to be purchased by the customer √ requires one router interface for each PVC allows the customer to do dial on demand routing over analog lines rather than paying for access lines allows the customer to pay for the average bandwidth requirement rather than the maximum bandwidth requirement √ 10 Which commands were added to the configuration to produce the output shown in the graphic? (Choose two.) Router(config)# ip route 192.168.192.4 255.255.255.0 17 broadcast Router(config-if)# frame-relay lmi-type cisco 17 Router(config-if)# frame-relay map ip 192.168.192.4 17 broadcast √ Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.192.4 255.255.255.0 DLCI 17 static Router(config-if)# interface S0/0.1 point-to-point Router(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay cisco √ 11 Which of the following statements are true about a basic Frame Relay WAN connection between a customer and the service provider? (Choose two.) DTE devices such as routers and FRADs transmit user data. √ DTE devices such as Frame Relay switches transport the data between DTE devices. An Ethernet connection between the router and the frame relay switch allow access to the frame relay network. Serial connections between the customer and the frame relay network are used to transport data. √ The Frame Relay WAN is a mesh of interconnected routers. 12 How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.) Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery. √ It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames. FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors. The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender. √ The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected. 13 Why are full mesh topologies seldom found in large Frame Relay networks? Additional hardware is required to achieve the mesh. The additional virtual circuits slow the link access speeds. The required number of links becomes prohibitive. √ Additional interfaces are required since each can only support 10 virtual circuits. The speed of transmission slows in inverse proportion to the square of the number of links. 14 Which bits are set in the data frames to request that a device reduce the flow of data sent to or from a Frame Relay switch? EIR bits ECN bits √ CIR bits DE bits Window bits 15 Which data link layer protocol is used to carry frames across a Frame Relay link? HDLC PPP LAPD LAPF √ Frame Relay 16 When troubleshooting a frame relay connection, a technician entered the show frame-relay pvc command shown in the graphic. What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic? (Choose three.) The output in the debug frame-relay lmi command will indicate status 0x2 for DLCI 18. √ DLCI 16 was programmed on the switch, but the remote router may be misconfigured. √ The frame relay switch is sending LMI status messages about DLCI 16 to the Singapore router. √ Congestion has been experienced on DLCI 18. Some packets have been set to be dropped if congestion is experienced on the PVC. 17 When troubleshooting a frame-relay connection, an administrator entered the show interface s0/0 command and received the output shown in the graphic. The line protocol is down. Which of the following are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.) The cable between the CSU/DSU and the router is disconnected. The serial 0/0 interface is shutdown. The frame-relay switch is not advertising the correct PVCs. √ The LMI type on the frame-relay switch is Cisco. √ The address of the frame-relay switch is not in the routing table. 18 Which of the following statements regarding multipoint subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.) A single multipoint subinterface is used to establish PVC connections to multiple physical interfaces on remote routers.√ Each multipoint link is in its own subnet. The physical interface does not have an IP address. √ Split-horizon is disabled allowing routing updates to be re-transmitted on every subinterface. Multipoint subinterfaces require the encapsulation frame-relay command to be issued individually for each subinterface to operate correctly. 19 Which of the following occurs when the command frame-relay map ip 10.1.1.1 22 is configured on the router? (Choose two.) DLCI 22 will replace the MAC address in the ARP table for entry 10.1.1.1 The remote circuit with DLCI 22 can receive a ping. Inverse-ARP will be used to add an entry for 10.1.1.1 into the frame-relay map table using DLCI 22. Pings to 10.1.1.1 will be sent on the circuit labeled DLCI 22. √ The router will use DLCI 22 to forward data to 10.1.1.1. √ 20 How is a permanent virtual circuit defined in a Frame Relay network that is carrying IP traffic? It is given a fixed locally significant identification number. √ It has a specific IP address. It is identified by the MAC address of the router interface. Dynamic virtual channel identifiers are assigned to each frame transmitted across the network. The service provider assigns a terminal endpoint identifier to the switch port. 21 Which of the following are LMI extensions? (Choose two.) broadcasting of frames PVC status messages √ call tear down simple flow control √ congestion avoidance frame discarding

@wiki::38/ 2007-05-01 2007-05-01T11:55:36Z

1 You have just taken delivery of a new US standard Cisco 2620 router that includes a BRI "U" interface? Which of the following describes how this router will be connected in the ISDN network? An external terminal adapter (TA) must be attached to the router for connectivity. *An NT1 must be connected to the router for connectivity.* The router is a TE1 device and is ready to connect to the provider's network. The router is a TE2 device and requires both a TA and NT1 for connectivity. 2 A network administrator is troubleshooting ISDN connectivity. The administrator suspects the problem lies with the authentication protocol. What command should the administrator use to view the authentication process between the router and the ISDN switch? debug pap authentication debug chap authentication *debug ppp authentication* debug isdn authentication 3 Which router command would be used to enter the mode for configuring a T1 PRI connection? *Router(config)# controller t1 {slot/port}* Router(config)# interface pri t1 {slot/port} Router(config)# interface pri {slot/port} t1 Router(config)# controller {slot/port} t1 4 A network administrator in Europe has been asked to provide the network with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with an S/T interface. What further equipment will be provided by the ISP for the ISDN connection? Nothing. The router is already suitable. BRI WAN interface card to install in the router *an external NT1 to terminate the local loop* a TA/NT1 device to install on the router 5 Which of the following correctly describes ISDN BRI? (Choose three.) *two 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel* *B channel is suitable for voice data* *uses in-band signaling* uses out-of-band signaling offers the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection twenty-three 64 kbps B channels and one 16 kbps D channel 6 Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.) Link Access Protocol - Data *High-Level Data Link Control* Logical Link Control Serial Data Link Control *Point to Point protocol* Binary Synchronous Control protocol 7 The network administrator of XYZ company needs to configure a new ISDN router. After entering the commands shown in the graphic, the administrator tries to access the Internet but the ISDN connection does not open. If the service provider verifies that the problem is with XYZ's configuration, what is a possible cause of the problem? The dialer map is configured incorrectly. The encapsulation type is configured incorrectly. The dialer group is configured incorrectly. The ACL is configured incorrectly. *The isdn switch-type command needs to be configured globally.* 8 Which of the following describes the use of a SPID? (Choose two.) selects the ISDN switch type *identifies the line configuration of the BRI service* *allows multiple ISDN devices to share the local loop* designates whether a device is a TE1 or TE2 allows ISDN broadcasts 9 What must be configured for an ISDN PRI connection? (Choose three.) *ISDN switch type* Service Profile Identifier (SPID) Dial-on-Demand Routing (DDR) *PRI group time slot* *T1/E1 controller, framing type and line coding* 10 Why must routers be configured to specify the ISDN switch type? *Switches use various implementations of Q.931.* The IOS of most routers lacks the ability to autosense the switch. The switch must know what type of router it is communicating with. The Layer 3 connection between the terminal equipment and the ISDN switch is not standardized. 11 Which of the following is considered out-of-band signaling? using a frequency outside of the rated bandwidth for transmission transmitting data over a control channel using a separate channel for control signals *transmitting control signals over a data channel * 12 Which of the following are true of ISDN routers configured with dialer profiles? (Choose two.) They do not use ACL to define interesting traffic. *Their B channels can be configured with different subnets and encapsulation types.* *Their BRI interfaces can belong to multiple dialer pools.* They use PPP only. They can only use the CHAP authentication protocol. 13 A small company uses an ISDN WAN link to transfer e-mail to remote sites. What command would the administrator use to determine if the ISDN link is up? *show isdn status* show isdn active show dialer show interface bri0/0 debug isdn active 14 Which of the following is essential for all ISDN BRI interface configurations? *ISDN switch type* line encoding technique line framing method local directory number service profile identifier 15 Which command configures an ISDN interface to use a switch type which is different from that used on other interfaces on the router? Router(config)#switch-type switch-type Router(config-if)#switch-type switch-type Router(config)#isdn switch-type switch-type *Router(config-if)#isdn switch-type switch-type* 16 A network administrator is troubleshooting an ISDN connectivity problem. Users are complaining they cannot connect to the Internet. The network administrator suspects the ISDN connection attempt is timing out before a connection can be established. What command would the network administrator use to determine what the "wait for carrier" timeout value is set to? show isdn status show isdn active *show dialer* show interfaces bri0/0 debug isdn q931 show ISDN interfaces 17 What is a reason why static routes are preferred over dynamic routes for DDR to operate on an ISDN interface? An ISDN interface will not allow dynamic routing updates that use broadcast technology. *A dynamic route will take precedence over a static route because of its lower administrative distance.* Dynamic routing can never be considered interesting traffic by default. Dialer-list configuration does not support dynamic routing. Dynamic routes may cause the ISDN connection to dial constantly to transmit updates. 18 Which command is used within an existing ISDN network to display current call information, including the called number? show isdn status show isdn active *show interfaces bri0/0* show ip interfaces (http://ictlab.tyict.vtc.edu.hk/~030220930/CCNA%20FINAL/CCNA%20FINAL/sem4/sem4(ch4).htm)

@wiki::37/ 2007-05-01 2008-05-27T07:35:04Z

How is the MD5 function valuable in authentication? (Choose two.) *uses a one-way hash function* authentication occurs more rapidly *challenges are unique* the remote router assumes control of frequency of challenge the remote router assumes control of timing of challenge 2 Which command specifies a link quality over a PPP link? ppp link 50 ppp link quality 60 ppp percentage 80 *ppp quality 90* 3 PPP uses several protocols for communication. Which of the following are options that the LCP protocol in the PPP architecture can provide? (Choose two.) *testing the quality of the link* routing packets between devices assigning individual station addresses configuring network layer protocols *negotiating authentication options* 4 Which of the following is a reason for using such protocols as PAP and CHAP? *to establish a PPP session* to provide error checking on a WAN link to restrict access to networks connected by serial and ISDN links to provide a backup hostname and privilege mode password on the router 5 Which advantage does the multilink option provide when using PPP? *Data transmission has load balancing possibilities.* Interfaces can be configured using both HDLC and PPP. More than one authentication method can be used. More than one compression protocol can be configured. 6 A two router network is running PPP over the serial interfaces that connect them. The enable password on the Denim router is "gateway". The Denim router also has a locally configured authentication password for the Plaid router which is "fortress". Which command must be executed on the Plaid router to allow Denim to authenticate to the Plaid router using CHAP? Plaid(config)# enable secret gateway Plaid(config)# enable secret fortress *Plaid(config)# username Plaid password fortress* Plaid(config)# username Denim password fortress Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password gateway Plaid(config)# hostname Plaid secret password fortress 7 A technician has used Telnet to gain remote access to a router that has no connectivity on its serial interface. Which command should be issued to determine if the serial cable is connected properly? *show controllers* show processes show run show status 8 Several tasks must occur before a link between two routers can pass data using PPP. Which of the following are required to establish and maintain a PPP session between two routers? configure each host with a PPP address *configure authentication between the two routers* send LCP and NCP frames to negotiate configuration parameters send hostname and password information between the two routers 9 Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.) PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices. PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model. *PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.* *PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.* *PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.* PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces. 10 What can be concluded from the output shown in the graphic? (Choose three.) *A two-way handshake is occuring.* *The LCPs were already negotiated.* The router can begin NCP negotiations. The debug ppp negotiation command was executed. *The debug ppp authentication command was executed.* 11 How did Cisco alter the HDLC encapsulation to allow a single link to carry multiple protocols? split the transmissions into multiple channels each carrying a single protocol identified the protocol in the FCS field compressed the datagrams differently for each protocol *added a type field to identify the protocol* 12 Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.) *exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity* *sends authentication password to verify identity* prevents transmission of login information in plain text *disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails* initiates a two-way handshake 13 Which command was used to display the partial output shown in the graphic? show ppp traffic *show lcp traffic* debug ppp negotiation debug ppp authentication 14 Which authentication protocol can be spoofed to allow playback attacks? MD5 CHAP *PAP* NCP 15 Which of the following describes the High-Level Data Link Control protocol? (Choose three.) *HDLC provides flow and error control.* Standard HDLC supports multiple protocols on a single link. *HDLC uses sequencing and acknowledgements.* HDLC is defined as the default encapsulation on Cisco LAN interfaces. *Cisco implemented a proprietary version of HDLC.* 16 Refer to the output of the show interface Serial0/0 command in the graphic. How many NCPs have been established? 1 *2 3 4 17 ISDN BRI service uses two B channels to send data, voice, and video. If the first channel becomes saturated, the second channel can be configured to forward packets. Which command will allow ISDN to load balance across both links? Router(config-if)# ppp quality 2 Router(config-if)# ip variance Router(config-if)# ip maximum-paths 2 *Router(config-if)# ppp multilink* 18 When troubleshooting the Serial 0/0 interface of a router, a technician issues the show controllers command. The following was the output of the command: Interface is Serial0/0, electrical interface is UNKNOWN. What can be concluded about the Serial 0/0 interface? (Choose three.) *Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is down* Serial0/0 is down, line protocol is up *Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down* The interface is neither DCE or DTE. The interface hardware may be faulty. *The cabling may be improperly connected* 19 A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial 0/0 command on the local router and receives the following output: Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down(disabled) What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose two.) *interface missing the no shutdown command* *clockrate command missing* CSU/DSU failed interface shutdown due to high error rate cable missing 20 Which of the following is an advantage of using time-division multiplexing (TDM) for transmitting data? (Choose two.) It allows a single source to transmit over multiple data channels. *Multiple sources can transmit over a single channel.* *Original data streams must be reconstructed at the destination.* TDM relies on Layer 3 protocols to operate.

@wiki::36/ 2007-05-01 2007-05-01T11:53:51Z

1 A large company already has a T1 leased line but this connection is inadequate at peak business hours. Furthermore, they would like a backup WAN connection in case their leased line temporarily fails. What type of WAN connection is commonly used in this situation? X.25 **DSL* ISDN cable modem 56 kbps 2 A new international company needs to have a design for WAN connectivity. The company will have at least five offices in every state in the United States and Mexico. Some states will have as many as 20 offices. The branch offices will require constant contact with the services of the main office. Which design model is best for WAN connectivity in this situation? a mesh network of all branch WANs a simple star topology connecting all branch LANs to a central router with multiple interfaces a one layer design using Frame Relay links between LANs **a three layer hierarchical topology interconnecting branch LANs within an area, the area LANs within a region, and connecting the regions to form the core of the WAN* 3 A European company needs a low cost, dialup WAN connection to validate transactions for point-of-sale card readers. Which connection type is commonly used for this situation? ATM **X.25* Frame Relay Leased lines 4 Which statement is true regarding WAN technologies? Most WANS use only one technology throughout the infrastructure such as ISDN, Frame Relay or ATM. Data transfer speeds on the WAN are typically faster than the speeds on a LAN. **WANs operate at the lower three layers of the OSI model.* WANs are unable to support the transfer of voice or video traffic. 5 A company requires a WAN connection that will carry 64 kbps and allow fast call setup time. The connection does not need to carry video. What is the best choice for this company? ATM **ISDN BRI* X.25 analog dialup 6 Why is it important to identify the type of traffic that will be carried on the WAN links before choosing a WAN technology? to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link to determine the WAN topology **to determine the requirements for latency and jitter* to determine the type of signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link 7 Which of the following connections will provide the equivalent of a T1/E1 connection and is intended for large businesses? **BRI* PRI DLCI PSTN POTS 8 Depending on the company size and geographical layout, there might be many end points on the company WAN. Why is it important to identify all the end points of the WAN before choosing a WAN design? to determine the routing protocol to be used on the WAN link **to determine the WAN topology* to determine the requirements for latency and jitter to determine the signaling protocol to be used on the WAN link 9 Which of the following is commonly used as Data Terminal Equipment? ISDN modem **router* CSU/DSU 10 Which of the statements regarding DSL are correct? (Choose three.) DSL provides a consistent bandwidth of 2.154 Mbps. **DSL connections provide a fast dialup to establish a WAN connection.* **DSL connects the local loop to a digital subscriber line access multiplexer.* DSL bandwidth varies and can exceed the bandwidth of a T1/E1 leased line. **For DSL to function properly, the local loop must be less than 5.5 kilometers (3.5 miles).* DSL is a popular choice for enterprises that need to connect home users to the local network due to strong security. 11 Which of the following is true of WANs? Shared network WAN technologies such as Frame Relay and ATM are more expensive but offer less latency and jitter than dedicated lines. ISDN is suitable for large enterprises. **The more network devices that data has to pass through across the WAN, the more latency and less reliability the network will experience.* WANs typically incorporate only one technology such as ISDN, Frame Relay, or ATM. 12 Which term describes the cabling that connects the customer site to the nearest exchange of the WAN service provider? CPE CO **local loop* DCE DTE 13 Which of the following describes a packet-switched network using connection-oriented data transfer? (Choose two.) Each packet carries an identifier. **Each packet carries full addressing information.* **Each switch in the route must evaluate the addressing information to determine where to send the packet.* Each switch determines where to send the packet by examining tables in memory. The addressing information is used to set switches along the route of data transfer to create a continuous copper circuit. 14 On which of the following are most Layer 2 WAN encapsulations based? IP PPP **HDLC* SLIP HSSI CSU 15 A U.S. company requires a WAN connection used only to transfer sales data from individual stores to the home office. All transfers will occur after business hours. The required bandwidth for this connection is estimated to be less than 38 kbps. Which type of connection requires the least investment for this company? ATM ISDN **analog dialup* T1 Leased Line 16 Which statements are correct regarding ATM connections? (Choose two.) uses only PVCs **is useful for video transfers* **has data rates beyond 155 Mbps* cells have 32 byte payload and a 5 byte overhead mandates single virtual circuits on a single leased line connection (http://ictlab.tyict.vtc.edu.hk/~030220930/CCNA%20FINAL/CCNA%20FINAL/sem4/sem4(ch2).htm)

@wiki::35/ 2007-05-01 2007-05-01T11:51:09Z

1 The 192.168.10.0/27 network is to be further subnetted with a /30 mask. Assuming that ip subnet-zero is enabled, what are the first two addresses in the first resulting subnet that can be used for point-to-point links? 192.168.10.1 192.168.10.2 ***192.168.10.33 ***192.168.10.34 192.168.10.193 192.168.10.194 2 What is the term that describes the cabling between the MDF and IDF locations as shown in the graphic? horizontal cross-connect horizontal cross-cabling vertical cross-connect ***vertical cross-cabling 3 (VALE graph??) An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the graphic? forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3 add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table forward the frame out Interface3 ***discard the frame forward the frame out all interfaces forward the frame out Interface2 4 What is the minimum amount of bandwidth that Layer 2 LAN switches should provide to servers? 1 Mbps 10 Mbps -- või siis see ***100 Mbps 1000 Mbps 1 Gbps 5 Router XYZ is to be added to OSPF area 0. Which of the following is the correct syntax for enabling OSPF on this router? XYZ(config)# router ospf XYZ(config)# router ospf 0 ***XYZ(config)# router ospf 10 XYZ(config)# router ospf process 0 XYZ(config)# router ospf process 10 XYZ(config)# router ospf processid 10 6 (VALE muudetud) Which of the following are features of the distribution layer? (Choose three.) ***VLAN routing MAC layer filtering ***security microsegmentation ***packet filtering with access control lists workgroup access 7 What is required for OSPF routers to share routing information? ***designated routers a backup designated router neighbor adjacencies an NBMA network topology links configured on the 224.0.0.0 network 8 Which of the following is the metric that OSPF uses to determine the best route to a destination network? administrative distance ***cost hop count link delay 9 grapg?? A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to most efficiently provide for the number of host addresses required by Router C, while wasting the fewest addresses? /31 /30 /29 /28 ***/27 /26 10 Which LAN design requirement addresses user-to user and user-to-application connectivity? adaptability manageability scalability ***functionality 11 (VALE.. ei tundu küll vale) What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state? The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network. The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state. The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails. There is no activity on the route to that network. ***The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic. 12 (see oli enne vale)A switched Ethernet network is experiencing unusually heavy traffic to the extent that network delays have become intolerable. While investigating the problem, a network administrator disconnects a redundant uplink between two switches. The excessive traffic quickly subsides. What was the likely cause of this problem? ***broadcast storms routing loops multiple frame copies load balancing unicast frame forwarding 13 (VALE tundub õige) Which distribution layer devices enhance Layer 2 switching with Layer 3 functionality? (Choose two.) multilayer routers ***multilayer switches bridges managed hubs VLANs ***a switch with a router module 14 Using Telnet, a network administrator is unable to log in to a switch located at another office in order to make configuration changes to it. What could be the problem? The managmement station does not have access to a full-duplex Fast Ethernet link on the switch. VLAN 1 on the switch is not configured for TCP/IP network access. ***The switch must be managed from the local LAN. The switch hostname has not been set. 15 When the mode LED on a Cisco switch is set to STAT, what port status is indicated by a green flashing port LED? no link port is not forwarding ***port is sending or receiving data port is sending, but not receiving link fault 16 (oli vale)A switch that was previously attached to another VTP management domain is added to an existing VTP domain. VLAN information on all the other switches in the existing VTP management domain is lost. Why did this happen? Adding the new switch caused spanning tree protocol to recalculate the network and erase the existing VLAN configurations. The new switch BID was higher than the existing VTP server, causing the new switch to broadcast incorrect VLAN information to the domain. ***The new switch had a higher VTP configuration revision number than the other switches in the domain and erased the VLAN information on the VTP server and VTP clients. The new switch exceeded the maximum number of switches permitted in a management domain. The switch advertised VTP version 2 information to the network, causing the existing VLAN data to be overwritten. 17 (VALE - minuarust õige) How can MAC address table entries be removed from a switch? (Choose two.) ***Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses. The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries. ***The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries. The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries. Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port. 18 (VALE järeldus hub) Which Ethernet device has the highest latency factor? transceiver ***hub MAU router

@wiki::34/ 2007-05-01 2007-05-01T11:50:06Z

1 The routers in the diagram are configured for RIP v2 on network 1.0.0.0. Additional static routes are configured as shown in the graphic. What will RA do with a packet it receives on interface 1.1.1.1 that is destined for host 2.2.1.1 on a remote network? buffer it until it learns a route to 2.2.0.0 forward it to 1.1.1.2 forward it to 1.1.2.2 forward it to 1.1.3.2¡Ì forward it to 2.1.1.2 drop the packet 2 A redundant switched topology is being installed in an enterprise. Which of the following should be configured to ensure that this network operates efficiently? TTL STP¡Ì BID BPDU ARP 3 Users are complaining that resources housed on a remote network have become unavailable. Which command can the administrator use to check whether this destination network is known to the local router? router# show ip route¡Ì router# show route router# show ip rip router# show rip router# show protocol 4 How can MAC address table entries be removed from a switch? (Choose two.) Power cycle the switch to clear all dynamically learned addresses.¡Ì The clear switching-tables command will remove statically configured entries. The clear mac-address-table command will remove statically and dynamically configured table entries.¡Ì The erase flash command will clear all statically configured table entries. Statically configured MAC addresses will automatically be removed from the address table 300 minutes after the last activity on a switch port. 5 Which of the following are performed by a switch port that is in the forwarding state in an STP network? (Choose three.) discarding data traffic receiving data traffic¡Ì forwarding data traffic¡Ì recalculating BPDUs receiving BPDUs¡Ì blocking BPDUs 6 Which of the following statements about link-state advertisements are correct? (Choose three.) LSAs are sent to neighboring routers on a regular basis. LSAs are used by a router to determine if a neighboring router is online. LSAs are multicast to all routers in the area.¡Ì LSAs contain the topological database of the sending router. Routers use LSAs to learn about the topology of the entire network.¡Ì LSAs are sent when the router detects a topology change.¡Ì 7 Which type of address does OSPF use to initiate new adjacencies and to ensure that neighbor routers are functioning? broadcast loopback multicast¡Ì unicast 8 Which LAN design requirement addresses user-to user and user-to-application connectivity? adaptability manageability scalability functionality¡Ì 9 What affects network availability? (Choose three.) location throughput¡Ì user proficiency response time¡Ì workstation speed access to resources¡Ì 10 The spanning tree election process has taken place on a network containing five bridges. How many total root bridges have been elected? 1¡Ì 3 5 one per trunk port 11 What problems can occur on a redundant switched network? (Choose three.) A destination device may receive a frame more than once.¡Ì The switch may learn an incorrect MAC address-to-port mapping.¡Ì Broadcast storms may make the network appear down.¡Ì A frame may be dropped before reaching its destination. The network may not converge. 12 Using Telnet, a network administrator is unable to log in to a switch located at another office in order to make configuration changes to it. What could be the problem? The managmement station does not have access to a full-duplex Fast Ethernet link on the switch. VLAN 1 on the switch is not configured for TCP/IP network access.¡Ì The switch must be managed from the local LAN. The switch hostname has not been set. 13 A router is configured to connect to a trunked uplink as shown in the graphic. A packet is received on the FastEthernet 0/1 physical interface from VLAN 1. The packet destination address is 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet? The router will ignore the packet because the source and destination are on the same broadcast domain. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1. The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.¡Ì The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3. The router will drop the packet since no network that includes the source address is attached to the router. 14 Which of the following statements are correct concerning the default configuration of a new switch? (Choose three.) VLAN1 is configured with a management IP address.¡Ì All switch ports are assigned to VLAN1.¡Ì Spanning Tree Protocol is disabled.¡Ì All interfaces are set to auto. Enable password is configured as cisco. The flash directory contains the IOS image. 15 Which of the following are features of the distribution layer? (Choose three.) VLAN routing¡Ì MAC layer filtering security¡Ì microsegmentation packet filtering with access control lists¡Ì workgroup access 16 How do EIGRP routers actively maintain neighbor relationships? They dynamically learn new routes. They continously monitor the status of their own ports. They exchange their entire neighbor tables with directly attached routers. They exchange hello packets with their neighbors every five seconds, by default.¡Ì They compare known routes to received updates. 17 Which of the following is the metric that OSPF uses to determine the best route to a destination network? administrative distance cost¡Ì hop count link delay 18 In which STP state does a switch port only receive BPDUs? blocking¡Ì learning disabled listening forwarding 19 A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to most efficiently provide for the number of host addresses required by Router C, while wasting the fewest addresses? /31 /30 /29 /28 /27 /26¡Ì 20 Which of the following are considered limitations of RIP v1? (Choose three.) It does not support authentication.¡Ì It sends updates as broadcasts on 255.255.255.255.¡Ì It does not send subnet mask information in its updates.¡Ì It is not widely supported in multivendor routing environments. It does not support equal-cost load balancing. 21 Which of the switches shown in the graphic will be elected as the root bridge of the spanning tree topology? Cat-A¡Ì Cat-B Cat-C Cat-D 22 What is the purpose of a default route? A default route will cause packets addressed to unknown destination networks to be dropped. A default route will cause packets addressed to unknown destination networks to be sent to a designated router interface.¡Ì A default route will cause packets addressed to known destinations to prefer a specified path to the destination network. A default route will direct packets for all destination networks to a designated router and router interface. 23 Which of the following tables does DUAL use to calculate the lowest cost routes to each destination? routing table and topology table neighbor table and routing table neighbor table and topology table¡Ì neighbor table and adjacency table 24 Which strategies can a company take to enhance network reliability through redundancy? (Choose two.) Eliminate single points of failure.¡Ì Flood frames for unknown destinations. Send multiple frames to an end device. Design alternate routes to a destination.¡Ì Forward MAC address tables to all switches on the network. Eliminate multiple paths to the same destination. 25 The network 192.1.1.0 has been subnetted for a network design. The 192.1.1.16/28 subnet has been chosen for further subnetting to provide for point-to-point serial link addressing. How many serial link subnets can be created while minimizing the number of wasted addresses? 1 2 4¡Ì 6 8 16 26 Which command is used to copy a backup configuration file from a server to the non-volatile memory of a switch? Switch# copy startup-config tftp Switch# copy tftp startup-config¡Ì Switch# copy NVRAM tftp Switch# copy tftp NVRAM Switch# copy tftp flash 27 Which of the following statements describe trunking? (Choose two.) Trunking bundles multiple virtual links over one physical link.¡Ì Trunking decreases the number of switch ports available for hosts. Trunking complicates the physical interconnection of switches in the wiring closet. Trunks can be configured to carry traffic for several VLANs between switches.¡Ì Trunking requires one switch port for each configured VLAN. 28 What is indicated when an EIGRP route is in the passive state? The route has the highest path cost of all routes to that destination network. The route must be confirmed by neighboring routers before it is put in the active state. The route is a feasible successor and will be used if the active route fails. There is no activity on the route to that network. The route is viable and can be used to forward traffic.¡Ì 29 Which of the following are characteristics of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.) collection of routing information from within a defined area of the network¡Ì view of network from neighbor's perspective independent calculation of best paths to all destinations¡Ì propagation of incorrect information minimized¡Ì demonstration of universal compatibility and simplicity 30 Which VLAN implementation method requires less administration in the wiring closet and can provide notification if an unauthorized user attempts to connect to the network? port-centric static dynamic¡Ì geographic 31 What is the term that describes the cabling between the MDF and IDF locations as shown in the graphic? horizontal cross-connect horizontal cross-cabling vertical cross-connect¡Ì vertical cross-cabling 32 Which of the following are layers in the hierarchical design model? (Choose three.) gateway access¡Ì distribution¡Ì network core¡Ì domain 33 A switched Ethernet network is experiencing unusually heavy traffic to the extent that network delays have become intolerable. While investigating the problem, a network administrator disconnects a redundant uplink between two switches. The excessive traffic quickly subsides. What was the likely cause of this problem? broadcast storms¡Ì routing loops multiple frame copies load balancing unicast frame forwarding 34 What does the router shown in the graphic provide to the network? (Choose three.) forwarding of packets between VLANs¡Ì forwarding of broadcast frames between VLANs improved efficiency in bandwidth utilization ¡Ì connectivity of local hosts with remote resources¡Ì elimination of VLAN configuration errors prevention of switching loops 35 What is required for OSPF routers to share routing information? designated routers a backup designated router neighbor adjacencies¡Ì an NBMA network topology links configured on the 224.0.0.0 network 36 An entire workgroup has lost network connectivity. After shutting down and restarting the workgroup switch in the wiring closet, it is observed that the switch system LED is amber. What should be done? The switch should be reconfigured. The switch should be replaced in order to restore connectivity to the workgroup.¡Ì The switch should be allowed to complete POST before its configuration is checked. The switch has returned to service, however its configuration should be checked. 37 What will be the result of OSPF DR/BDR elections in the network shown in the diagram? (Choose three.) R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.1.0/24 network. R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.2.0/24 network.¡Ì R1 will be the DR for the 10.1.3.0/24 network. R2 will be the DR for the 10.1.1.0/24 network.¡Ì R3 will be the DR for the 10.1.2.0/24 network. R4 will be the DR for the 10.1.3.0/24 network.¡Ì 38 A new color laser printer has been configured on the Marketing VLAN. Users on the Sales VLAN would also like to have access to this printer. What must be done in order for the Sales department users to be able to access this device? A root bridge must be elected to allow the traffic to cross. A bridge must be configured with a compatible bridging protocol. A router must be installed and configured to connect the VLANs.¡Ì No traffic should be allowed to pass between VLANs. The print server must be configured to accept connections over VTP. 39 Which of the following are characteristics of a router-on-a-stick design for inter-VLAN routing? (Choose three.) multiple logical router interfaces¡Ì multiple physical router interfaces one logical router interface one physical router interface¡Ì multiple logical networks defined for each VLAN one logical network defined for each VLAN¡Ì 40 How many collision domains will there be in the entire network shown in the graphic if Hub1 is replaced with a Layer 2 switch? 2 3 4¡Ì 7 8 10 41 Router XYZ is to be added to OSPF area 0. Which of the following is the correct syntax for enabling OSPF on this router? XYZ(config)# router ospf XYZ(config)# router ospf 0 XYZ(config)# router ospf 10¡Ì XYZ(config)# router ospf process 0 XYZ(config)# router ospf process 10 XYZ(config)# router ospf processid 10 42 Which distribution layer devices enhance Layer 2 switching with Layer 3 functionality? (Choose two.) multilayer routers multilayer switches¡Ì bridges managed hubs VLANs a switch with a router module¡Ì 43 The LAN devices are configured as shown in the diagram. Why are Host1 and Host2 unable to communicate? (Choose three.) A router is required to forward traffic between the hosts.¡Ì The switch ports are on different VLANs.¡Ì The VLAN port assignments must be contiguous for each VLAN. The host default gateway addresses must be on the same logical network. The switch IP address is on the wrong subnet. The hosts are configured on different logical networks.¡Ì 44 A switch that was previously attached to another VTP management domain is added to an existing VTP domain. VLAN information on all the other switches in the existing VTP management domain is lost. Why did this happen? Adding the new switch caused spanning tree protocol to recalculate the network and erase the existing VLAN configurations. The new switch BID was higher than the existing VTP server, causing the new switch to broadcast incorrect VLAN information to the domain. The new switch had a higher VTP configuration revision number than the other switches in the domain and erased the VLAN information on the VTP server and VTP clients.¡Ì The new switch exceeded the maximum number of switches permitted in a management domain. The switch advertised VTP version 2 information to the network, causing the existing VLAN data to be overwritten. 45 While deleting the VLANs from a switch, a network administrator receives the following message, "A default VLAN may not be deleted". What did the administrator do to cause this message to be displayed? The no vlan all command was entered. The no switchport mode access command was not properly entered. The no vlan 1 command was entered.¡Ì The no vlan command was entered in database configuration mode. The no default vlan command was entered. The administrator attempted to delete a VLAN that still has switch ports assigned to it. 46 How does an Ethernet switch improve network performance? (Choose three.) allows multiple frames to be forwarded simultaneously¡Ì decreases the number of broadcast domains increases network latency eliminates unnecessary broadcast frames reduces the size of collision domains¡Ì increases the number of collision domains¡Ì 47 Refer to the graphic. Which point must be reached before a bridge will forward a frame? A B C D E F¡Ì 48 What do switches configured with VLANs provide to an enterprise network? (Choose three.) bridging between VLANs security¡Ì broadcast control¡Ì physical grouping of users logical grouping of users¡Ì enlargement of collison domains 49 Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.) Configure RIP v2 with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.¡Ì Configure RIP v2 with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface. Configure the router with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised. Apply a network host address and subnet mask to the newly activated interface.¡Ì Activate the routing protocol with the router rip version 2 command.¡Ì Configure RIP on the other routers in the enterprise with an entry for the newly added network. 50 An Ethernet switch has developed the CAM table shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the graphic? forward the frame out all interfaces except Interface3¡Ì add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to Interface2 in the forwarding table forward the frame out Interface3 discard the frame forward the frame out all interfaces forward the frame out Interface2 51 Which algorithm does EIGRP use to calculate routes? PDM RTP DUAL¡Ì LSA 52 If EIGRP routing is employed and the successor route to a destination becomes unreachable or unreliable, which of the following would be used as a replacement? the route flagged as active in the topology table the feasible successor route in the topology table¡Ì the default gateway in the neighbor table the primary designated route in the topology table the backup designated router in the routing table 53 When the mode LED on a Cisco switch is set to STAT, what port status is indicated by a green flashing port LED? no link port is not forwarding port is sending or receiving data¡Ì port is sending, but not receiving link fault 54 Refer to the topology and link path costs shown in the graphic. What is the total cost of the path that OSPF will use between the Data_Center router and the BldgA router? 2 11 12¡Ì 65 66 55 Under which of the following circumstances might two routers have trouble establishing a neighbor relationship in an OSPF network? (Choose three.) Hello packets are not sent from either neighbor.¡Ì The interfaces are on different network types.¡Ì The network command has put the connected interfaces into the same OSPF area. Slow network connections cause OSPF advertisements to time out. Authentication passwords or keys are different.¡Ì 56 Which Ethernet device has the highest latency factor? transceiver hub MAU router¡Ì switch 57 How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.) They both use hop count as a metric.¡Ì They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.¡Ì They both broadcast their updates to their neighbors. They both send subnet mask information in their updates. They both provide for authentication of update sources. They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.¡Ì 58 What is required for full-duplex Ethernet transmissions? one pair of conductors in the cable and a switched connection between each node two pairs of conductors in the cable and a switched connection between each node¡Ì two pairs of conductors in the cable and a non-switched connection between each node four pairs of conductors in the cable and a non-switched connection between each node 59 Which interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.) OSPF¡Ì RIP v1 RIP v2¡Ì EIGRP¡Ì BGP IGRP 60 Which of the following statements regarding server placement are correct? (Choose two.) Enterprise servers should be located in the MDF.¡Ì Enterprise servers should be located in an IDF. Workgroup servers should be located in the MDF. Workgroup servers should be located in an IDF.¡Ì Both workgroup and enterprise servers should be located in the MDF. Both workgroup and enterprise servers should be located in an IDF. 61 What is the minimum amount of bandwidth that Layer 2 LAN switches should provide to servers? 1 Mbps 10 Mbps 100 Mbps¡Ì 1000 Mbps 1 Gbps (http://www.vreal.biz/Cet2615/exams/ccna3_sem3_final.txt)